Outcome probability in Laplace experiments

Finding the exact probability of an outcome in a random experiment is difficult and involves lot's of repetitions and counting. However, if we make one further assumption about the experiment, we can determine the outcome probabilities on theoretical grounds - no repetition is required.

This assumption is that no outcome is preferred, or in probability speech, that all outcomes have the same probability to occur. Clearly, this is quite a restrictive assumption and is not true for most experiments. Still, for a few popular experiments this is quite a reasonable assumption to make, as for example

Here is the exact definition, and an important implication: A random experiment where all mm possible outcomes o1,o2,...,omo_1, o_2, ..., o_m have the same probability to occur,

p=p(o1)=p(o2)=...=p(om)p=p(o_1)=p(o_2)=...=p(o_m)

is called a Laplace experiment.

Theorem 1

The probability for an outcome in a Laplace experiment is

p=1m=1Sp=\frac{1}{m}=\frac{1}{\vert S\vert}
Exercise 1

Prove the above assertion that in a Laplace experiment with mm outcomes, the outcome probability is p=1mp=\frac{1}{m}.

Solution

With p(o1)+p(o2)+...+p(om)=1p(o_1)+p(o_2)+...+p(o_m)=1 follows mp=1m\cdot p=1, and thus p=1mp=\frac{1}{m}.

Exercise 2

Argue if the random experiment below are Laplace experiments. Always calculate the probability of the indicated outcome.

  1. You roll a fair die once, p(6)=?

  2. You roll a fair die twice, p(66)=?

  3. You flip a coin 33 times, p(HHH)=?

  4. You select at random a letter from the word MARK, p('A')=?

  5. You select at random a letter from the word HALLO, p('L')=?

Solution
  1. Yes, S={1,2,3,4,5,6}S=\{1,2,3,4,5,6\}, thus m=6m=6 and p=1/6p=1/6
  2. Yes, because a die has no memory - if a 6 was thrown in the first roll, this has no effect on the second roll. S={11,12,13,...,64,65,66}S=\{11,12,13,...,64,65,66\}, thus m=36m=36 and p=1/36p=1/36
  3. Yes, because a coin has no memory. S={HHH,HHT,HTH,THH,HTT,THT,TTH,TTT}S=\{HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT\}, thus m=8m=8 and p=1/8p=1/8.
  4. Yes, because random selection implies that each position will in the long run be selected with the same percentage. So each letter will be selected with the same percentage. Thus S={M,A,R,K}S=\{M,A, R, K\} and p=1/4p=1/4.
  5. No. Although each position is selected with the same percentage in the long-run, the LL will be selected more often than the other letters (as there are two LL's in the word). Actually, we can still calculate the probability for selecting an LL: if each of the 55 positions is selected nn times out of the NN repetitions, we have
N=n+n+n+n+n=5nN=n+n+n+n+n=5n
Because there are two letters L, it is
p(L)=2nN=2n5n=25=0.4p(L)=\frac{2n}{N}=\frac{2n}{5n}=\frac{2}{5}=0.4
Exercise 3

A biased coin with p(H)=0.7p(H)=0.7 is flipped twice. Is this a Laplace experiment? Argue.

Solution

No, if the experiment is repeated many times, the percentage of observed HHHH is much higher than the percentage of observing TTTT (because HH occurs more often than TT). So not all outcome have the same probability to occur, so not a Laplace experiment.